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Ask A Simple Question, Get a Simple Answer (No AMoL Spoilers)


Luckers

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I wonder why the DO did that, anyway? Presumably it was so Rand would be corrupted by it or use it to kill semi and break his silly no-violence-against-women thing, but wouldn't just letting semi control him and thus serve the DO hav been smarter?

 

Another thing, Rand though about how he could resist the TP because he had the CK, now that he blew up the CK, will he succumb to the TP? Will his struggle to fight the urge play a part in the next book?

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Do portal stones link to places that are persistent worlds?  To put it another way is the world we are reading about is also an alternate reality relative to all others?

 

I don't think we figure out if WOT philosophy uses our world as a starting point or if our world exists as a reflection of another world.  I assume ours is the starting point and each other world that can be reached through a Portal Stone is a reflection...the sustaining factor being how well that alternative reality is expressed collectively.

 

For example, maybe 3 million people envision a world without shrimp...so then if you reach that world through the Portal Stone it is solid and real.  Maybe 20 people envision a world with only magenta trees; so then that world would be a weaker world...only a pale reflection perhaps not fully realized.

 

But I think the starting point is our world.

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I wonder why the DO did that, anyway? Presumably it was so Rand would be corrupted by it or use it to kill semi and break his silly no-violence-against-women thing, but wouldn't just letting semi control him and thus serve the DO hav been smarter?

 

Another thing, Rand though about how he could resist the TP because he had the CK, now that he blew up the CK, will he succumb to the TP? Will his struggle to fight the urge play a part in the next book?

 

What you said above is actually the big reason why I think that Rand may have been able to access the TP without the DO's consent through his connection with Moridin. Brandon has very vaguely implied that there could be a way to use the TP without the DO's permission (his use of the word generally), but we can't take that as a confirm/deny because of what he says about Semi - he's kind of teasing us with both answers there - so it also could have been the DO trying to corrupt Rand like you said.

 

From the Theoryland quote database: http://docs.google.com/View?docID=dcjspjqg_59g3crchdk&revision=_latest

Matt: There was some confusion about Rand and the Dark One’s permission, so for clarification’s sake, did Rand have the Dark One’s permission to use the True Power?

Brandon: I have not answered that. If anyone says that I have, I have not. What I have said specifically is, this is recording3: generally one must have the Dark One’s permission to use the True Power. Semirhage believed that the Dark One had betrayed her by letting Rand use it.  It is good that you have asked this so I can make sure on the record that is the answer I have given.

 

 

As for the CK and the temptation of the TP, I could definitely see that coming up as an issue in the next book as it's supposed to be extremely addictive.

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Of course Demandred stated he used it before, 'only at great need'.

 

Maybe it takes more than one 'hit' to be addicted. And Moggy seems to think that you become hopelessly addicted after the saa appear.

 

I hope that it's not harped on to much in the following books :(

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break his silly no-violence-against-women thing

That thing I think was "broken" long before the incident.

He killed a woman in Lord of Chaos; Caemlyn.

And he sometimes had women fight in battles.

 

The Telaranrhiod encounter with Moridin I think is part of the reason Rand balefired Semirhage (and Graendal).

 

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In the timeline of when the books came out, when did New Spring come out (between which books) and is it better to read it at that point in the series, before you read tEotW or after tGS? I didn't know it was out so I haven't read it. I hear its about before Rand is found, but I'm wondering how much of the story is needed to fully understand that book, and when exactly it was out.

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New Spring is completely stand alone, that is you don't need to have read the others books to understand it. I think it is better to read most of the main books before New Spring, that way New Spring will also give more to the reader as you already understand what is to come. I think it can be read after PoD without too much fear of things being revealed before time, but it is a simple matter of preference at that point, NS is like a break from the main series.

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In the timeline of when the books came out, when did New Spring come out (between which books) and is it better to read it at that point in the series, before you read tEotW or after tGS? I didn't know it was out so I haven't read it. I hear its about before Rand is found, but I'm wondering how much of the story is needed to fully understand that book, and when exactly it was out.

 

I think it's probably much more entertaining to read it after at least EotW, so you allow the characters and world to be introduced there first.  For a new reader, I'd have them read at least the first three (through TDR) before jumping into it.  I think it's probably best at that point, actually, since you can get some additional context on the Aiel and Moiraine while it's still relevant.  And there's an event originally referenced in tSR that first happens in The New Spring, so reading just before there seems ideal.

 

It's been a long time since I've read it-I think I've lost my copy of it :(.  I must have loaned it to my sister at some point a long time ago.  It's a pretty good story, but by far the shortest book in the series.  It's entirely meant to provide some background on Lan, Suian, and Moiraine after you've already met them, I think.

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Just a quick question...

Is Moridin ta'veren?.....is he the Champion of the Dark?

 

There's no evidence that he is, or ever has been ta'veren.  A lot of people suspect he's tied to the Pattern in some way as the Champion of the Dark.  This is mostly based on his remarks to Rand about how they've fought each other through countless turnings of the Wheel.

 

Remember, from what we know about being ta'veren, it doesn't last forever.  It's only for a set period of time that events will shape around any give ta'veren.  We might even end up seeing the effect wear off at some point, prior to the last battle.  I think we're meant to believe that Lew Therin was ta'veren as well, but it's not necessarily true.

 

RJ said somewhere that ta'veren isn't necessarily a factor of the soul, so people who aren't bound to the Horn or have significant souls could become ta'veren.  They usually aren't ta'veren in their next lifetime.

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Ok, I have one; How does a Forsaken or whomever actually go about "Getting permission" to channel the TP? Is it some internal dialogue they have with the DO in their head which gives them instant permission. Or do they have to travel to SG and ask in person or what? How long of a process is it? Do we even have a clue on any of that?

LOL I just had a mental image of the forsaken in a DMV like line and the DO behind the counter saying ill need 2 forms of ID and these forms filled out in triplicate

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I am not sure if this is a simple question but I'll chance it.

 

Rand has been having internal conversations with LTT. The consciousness of LTT is clearly real (rather than a delusion) as it has provided knowledge that Rand could not know. An example is he instantly recognizes Semirhage when he sees her in KOD. Now Rand is a distinct personality formed from his experiences growing up in the 2 Rivers. LTT has a distinct personality which comes from his life in the AOL. Now LTT killed himself because he was guilty about killing his family/friends while he was mad from the Taint. He realised what he had done as his insanity was temporarily lifted from him by Ishmael. Now that LTT's personality is living in Rand's head, is he still mad from the Taint.

 

Does Rand share his head with an insane LTT personality or is LTT actually lucid/free from the taint's insanity but merely rambling through his confusion/grief and guilt from his previous life?

 

I think that LTT should be free of the taint now that his soul has been reincarnated. Does insanity caused by the taint carry through after reincarnation? I would think not. Anyone have any thoughts on this?

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I am not sure if this is a simple question but I'll chance it.

 

Rand has been having internal conversations with LTT. The consciousness of LTT is clearly real (rather than a delusion) as it has provided knowledge that Rand could not know. An example is he instantly recognizes Semirhage when he sees her in KOD. Now Rand is a distinct personality formed from his experiences growing up in the 2 Rivers. LTT has a distinct personality which comes from his life in the AOL. Now LTT killed himself because he was guilty about killing his family/friends while he was mad from the Taint. He realised what he had done as his insanity was temporarily lifted from him by Ishmael. Now that LTT's personality is living in Rand's head, is he still mad from the Taint.

 

Does Rand share his head with an insane LTT personality or is LTT actually lucid/free from the taint's insanity but merely rambling through his confusion/grief and guilt from his previous life?

 

I think that LTT should be free of the taint now that his soul has been reincarnated. Does insanity caused by the taint carry through after reincarnation? I would think not. Anyone have any thoughts on this?

 

See the BUT thread and the Luckers/Terez exchange for a discussion on this.  Pages 239-241(or so). 

Personally, I think the voice was just Rand trying to rationalize things for himself.  He created the voice as a way to explain how he was creating complex weaves and remembering things from his past life.  He didn't want to go crazy, so he split that part of himself off and called it the madman.  Kind of like telling himself 'I'm not gay, but my boyfriend is'.  There is subjective evidence of this in VoG, but that chapter was so well done you could interpret it both ways. 

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I am not sure if this is a simple question but I'll chance it.

 

Rand has been having internal conversations with LTT. The consciousness of LTT is clearly real (rather than a delusion) as it has provided knowledge that Rand could not know. An example is he instantly recognizes Semirhage when he sees her in KOD. Now Rand is a distinct personality formed from his experiences growing up in the 2 Rivers. LTT has a distinct personality which comes from his life in the AOL. Now LTT killed himself because he was guilty about killing his family/friends while he was mad from the Taint. He realised what he had done as his insanity was temporarily lifted from him by Ishmael. Now that LTT's personality is living in Rand's head, is he still mad from the Taint.

 

Does Rand share his head with an insane LTT personality or is LTT actually lucid/free from the taint's insanity but merely rambling through his confusion/grief and guilt from his previous life?

 

I think that LTT should be free of the taint now that his soul has been reincarnated. Does insanity caused by the taint carry through after reincarnation? I would think not. Anyone have any thoughts on this?

 

See the BUT thread and the Luckers/Terez exchange for a discussion on this.  Pages 239-241(or so). 

Personally, I think the voice was just Rand trying to rationalize things for himself.  He created the voice as a way to explain how he was creating complex weaves and remembering things from his past life.  He didn't want to go crazy, so he split that part of himself off and called it the madman.  Kind of like telling himself 'I'm not gay, but my boyfriend is'.  There is subjective evidence of this in VoG, but that chapter was so well done you could interpret it both ways. 

 

This is a huge can of worms-it certainly doesn't fall under the simple question/answer premise.

 

JackeBarnes referred you to the last several pages of the BUT.  There's more discussion in this thread:

 

http://forums.dragonmount.com/index.php/topic,54507.0.html

 

I was looking for the other thread dealing with the same thing, but I couldn't find it.  The first thread I posted should show you enough of where the debate stands, if you can process through it.

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I am not sure if this is a simple question but I'll chance it.

 

Rand has been having internal conversations with LTT. The consciousness of LTT is clearly real (rather than a delusion) as it has provided knowledge that Rand could not know. An example is he instantly recognizes Semirhage when he sees her in KOD. Now Rand is a distinct personality formed from his experiences growing up in the 2 Rivers. LTT has a distinct personality which comes from his life in the AOL. Now LTT killed himself because he was guilty about killing his family/friends while he was mad from the Taint. He realised what he had done as his insanity was temporarily lifted from him by Ishmael. Now that LTT's personality is living in Rand's head, is he still mad from the Taint.

 

Does Rand share his head with an insane LTT personality or is LTT actually lucid/free from the taint's insanity but merely rambling through his confusion/grief and guilt from his previous life?

 

I think that LTT should be free of the taint now that his soul has been reincarnated. Does insanity caused by the taint carry through after reincarnation? I would think not. Anyone have any thoughts on this?

 

See the BUT thread and the Luckers/Terez exchange for a discussion on this.  Pages 239-241(or so). 

Personally, I think the voice was just Rand trying to rationalize things for himself.  He created the voice as a way to explain how he was creating complex weaves and remembering things from his past life.  He didn't want to go crazy, so he split that part of himself off and called it the madman.  Kind of like telling himself 'I'm not gay, but my boyfriend is'.  There is subjective evidence of this in VoG, but that chapter was so well done you could interpret it both ways. 

 

This is a huge can of worms-it certainly doesn't fall under the simple question/answer premise.

 

JackeBarnes referred you to the last several pages of the BUT.  There's more discussion in this thread:

 

http://forums.dragonmount.com/index.php/topic,54507.0.html

 

I was looking for the other thread dealing with the same thing, but I couldn't find it.  The first thread I posted should show you enough of where the debate stands, if you can process through it.

 

Thanks Bront and Jake. I will pursue my question in that thread.

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Shouldn't Aviendha be back by now? I am not sure how far the timeline can be trusted, but it she must have been away for at least 2 weeks (20+ days) by now.

 

I know that she had to spend 4-6 days to travel to Rhuidean and that she might have spent several days in the Ter'angreal as well, but it still does not add up. Plus, shouldn't Rand have wondered what was up with her?

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Shouldn't Aviendha be back by now? I am not sure how far the timeline can be trusted, but it she must have been away for at least 2 weeks (20+ days) by now.

 

I know that she had to spend 4-6 days to travel to Rhuidean and that she might have spent several days in the Ter'angreal as well, but it still does not add up. Plus, shouldn't Rand have wondered what was up with her?

I think she should be gone almost for a full month, cause didnt she leave from arad doman, so it would at least take 10 days (which is one week there), plus the 7 days in the rings, then she probably has to do some ceremonial stuff with other wise ones that would be in the city, and run back

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And Rand knows she is an apprentice to the Wise Ones and he saw her leaving, so he probably knows why/where she went, and if even if he doesn't know that he knows she went. The only reason he would have worried overly, or thought about her is if he felt she died. I mean, Ru. is probably too far for him to feel much else through the bond, but if it is then he would know when she is ok, so he wouldn't worry, or he would know that she was in danger or hurt, which I think he would have voiced, or it would be in the book somewhere. Since he doesn't seem concerned I figure at least to where they are in the book, she is alive.

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1) What happens when he enters the columns? Rand would feel nothing strange?

 

2) She would travel to 6 days run from Rhuidean (if I remember correctly) and it would be very strange if she did not travel back right from Rhuidean. So 15 days max should be enough. Hence, something must be going on.

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When an AS dies and that death breaks the warder bond, most likely resulting in the warder being doomed themselves.  What exactly is up with that, since AS just get really upset but can move on easier than the warders.  What does that imply for all the bonds Rand has?

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The Gathering Storm Book Tour, Vroman's Bookstore, LA 17 November 2009 - Robert Moreau reporting

 

Q: Rand is bonded to four people. If one of them was to die, what would be the effect on him? [something about the 'Warder rage' not being as bad because of the multiple bonds.]

A: We know that immediate bonding to someone else helps with the ‘Warder rage’ – it doesn’t completely get rid of it. I would say that your instincts are right, that it would help. I don’t think that it would negate everything.

 

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I've a little question, if you guys don't mind :)

 

If I remember, at the end of tGH, we see the legendary battle of Rand vs Ishy in the skies above Falme, and the first appearance of the Seanchan. Also, that was when the Horn of Valere was sounded, bringing back heroes like Birgitte and Artur Hawkwing himself..

 

Now, my question is: The Seanchan were repelled (for a while) by these summoned heroes, but the thing is, the Seanchan claimed that they are descendants from Artur's empire, so.. is there a oddity here? (Or more likely, I probably mixed up some facts..)

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The Heroes of the Horn must fight for whoever blows the Horn.

The Seanchan Empress is a direct (as far as we know) descendant of Hawkwing through his son Luthair.

plus if hawkwing was alive he might decide to fight against his 'descendants' because of their political system, we dont know what kind of man he was

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