Ask A Simple Question, Get a Simple Answer (No AMoL Spoilers)

[Knivy]

In the world of WoT they developed really heavy accents that make it hard to understand each other. That is close enough to new languages without needing books devoted to people learning languages. I know some people love RJ's descriptions but wanting that is as rediculous as complaining that a world that revolves around magic, alternate worlds, and rebirth does not follow every law of physics that we have.

The main problem is the Seanchan. They have plenty of off-screen time to learn the language, and are completely isolated from the continent. It wouldn't require more than maybe three lines scattered throughout the books. Heavy accents are not enough to compensate for thousands of years of isolation, culture merging, and a complete language transition.

[Terez]

Well, that makes things so much clearer. The voice declares it will not take part for absolutely no reason. What on earth makes you think we should not take the voice at its word?

Because, if it was the DO, it would want to appear aloof and benevolent, rather than tip his hand (can you think how Rand would've reacted to the DO revealing (a) that it's not Ishamael, and (b) that its hope is to fool Rand into serving it?). The VOICE wishes Rand to try his hand, to perform on his own. That doesn't change, depending on whether it was the Creator or the DO.

But why did it speak at all, if it was Shai'tan? Rand was going to act on his own regardless of the voice. The voice changed nothing. So why would Shai'tan speak to Rand to say that he wasn't going to do anything when no-one expected Him to do anything anyway? I can understand Shai'tan not wanting to reveal Himself, but He would not have been revealed had He just stayed quiet. Speaking doesn't really benefit the Shadow.

 

Rand was issuing the Dark one a challenge, saying "The Light burn you, Ba'alzamon! It has to end!" The Dark One was responding, saying he would not take part. That's why Rand said he came too close to provoking a direct confrontation with the Dark One at Maradon; he has done that before, when he attacked the Shadowspawn army in Tarwin's Gap, inside the Blight.

[shortkut]

The seanchan have only been isolated since the time of hawkwing. Shara and IoM have been separated much longer and as previously mentioned, shara acted like it had a different language. Additionally, there was not enough off screen time to learn the language proficiently enough. If you could imagine them learning at least one language proficiently in a few months with being really busy with other things then you can easily imagine everyone using the same language. It actually takes less suspension of disbelief.

[Clouded]

I haven't done any looking around for this answer, but I wanted to see if anyone had any answers before I tried to dig it out.

 

I was wondering, what are the advantages of Moiraine's method of healing? The original way of healing, before Nyneave rediscovered the way of healing with all 5 powers?

[Vardar]

I haven't done any looking around for this answer, but I wanted to see if anyone had any answers before I tried to dig it out.

 

I was wondering, what are the advantages of Moiraine's method of healing? The original way of healing, before Nyneave rediscovered the way of healing with all 5 powers?

 

I don't believe there are any. Nyneave's way is superior, however not all people will be as good at her way as they were with the original healing, so it'll still be used.

[Knivy]

The seanchan have only been isolated since the time of hawkwing. Shara and IoM have been separated much longer and as previously mentioned, shara acted like it had a different language. Additionally, there was not enough off screen time to learn the language proficiently enough. If you could imagine them learning at least one language proficiently in a few months with being really busy with other things then you can easily imagine everyone using the same language. It actually takes less suspension of disbelief.

The Seanchan have been isolated from the breaking, and the only contact between them and the continent was when Hawkwing's armies first made contact. The Seanchan are a culture that existed before the armies arrived, and were conquered. The "Consolidation"(or something like that) where all lands on that side of the ocean were conquered, happened a mere 200 years ago. Some of Hawkwing's beliefs have been assimilated into the culture, but it has all been twisted into the new Seanchan culture.

I haven't done any looking around for this answer, but I wanted to see if anyone had any answers before I tried to dig it out.

 

I was wondering, what are the advantages of Moiraine's method of healing? The original way of healing, before Nyneave rediscovered the way of healing with all 5 powers?

 

It was simpler, and thus easier for the everyday AS to use.

[Thrasymachus]

The AS method of healing is simpler and uses less Power, drawing on the life-force of the patient to heal the wounds/illness. AS in the AoL used it as a sort of "first-aid" or battlefield medicine so they could heal more people without overtaxing their Healers. Nynaeve's method uses more Power, all 5 Elements, and doesn't draw on the life-force of the patient, so it's capable of healing more grievous injuries and the patient recovers faster from the Healing.

[Clouded]

I haven't done any looking around for this answer, but I wanted to see if anyone had any answers before I tried to dig it out.

 

I was wondering, what are the advantages of Moiraine's method of healing? The original way of healing, before Nyneave rediscovered the way of healing with all 5 powers?

 

It was simpler, and thus easier for the everyday AS to use.

 

Do both weaves tire out the Channeler to the same extent? I seem to recall that Moiraine's method of healing was called a form of Battle healing. Can anyone back this up? I do not have the resources right now to find out.

[Knivy]

It was referenced by one of the forsaken as the crudest battle healing, or something like it.

Edited July 16, 2012 by Knivy

[Clouded]

The AS method of healing is simpler and uses less Power, drawing on the life-force of the patient to heal the wounds/illness. AS in the AoL used it as a sort of "first-aid" or battlefield medicine so they could heal more people without overtaxing their Healers. Nynaeve's method uses more Power, all 5 Elements, and doesn't draw on the life-force of the patient, so it's capable of healing more grievous injuries and the patient recovers faster from the Healing.

 

Awesome. Thanks for this. I wasn't sure if it was explained in the books, and this is what I was looking for.

[mb]

Rand was issuing the Dark one a challenge, saying "The Light burn you, Ba'alzamon! It has to end!" The Dark One was responding, saying he would not take part. That's why Rand said he came too close to provoking a direct confrontation with the Dark One at Maradon; he has done that before, when he attacked the Shadowspawn army in Tarwin's Gap, inside the Blight.

From my understanding, Maradon was the only time that was too close; otherwise I think Rand would have added "again" somewhere within the sentence.

 

I take the Dark One could speak only at Shayol Ghul; they were not there.

[yoniy0]

But why did it speak at all, if it was Shai'tan?

To expound on Terez's answer, Rand was fighting the Shadowspawn, but not their sender. He wished for a way to finish things, and one was comfortably provided (whether or not you believe the VOICE had anything to do with Rand suddenly knowing how to Skim and where to, he wasn't going to do so until he was told that the fight shouldn't be fought where he was). As to why the DO might wish Rand to directly confront Ishamael, I'd refer you to the dude's record; It likes to saw conflict, as a way to both bring people to its cause and to measure its servants.

[Kudzu]

In the world of WoT they developed really heavy accents that make it hard to understand each other. That is close enough to new languages without needing books devoted to people learning languages. I know some people love RJ's descriptions but wanting that is as rediculous as complaining that a world that revolves around magic, alternate worlds, and rebirth does not follow every law of physics that we have.

The main problem is the Seanchan. They have plenty of off-screen time to learn the language, and are completely isolated from the continent. It wouldn't require more than maybe three lines scattered throughout the books. Heavy accents are not enough to compensate for thousands of years of isolation, culture merging, and a complete language transition.

 

I think it more unlikely the Aiel would use the common tongue. At least the Seanchan were conquered by an army that spoke the common tongue, so at least it's possible if not very likely that the language of the conquering army spread through the continent replacing (I assume the old tongue) as the common language.

 

The Aiel would have have gone into the waste with the old tongue as their common language. They have had very little contact with the outside world since, why on earth would they have adopted the language of a people they had very little to do with?

Edited July 17, 2012 by Kudzu

[Sasha Grayes]

Are there Aiel whores?

[Mr Ares]

Well, that makes things so much clearer. The voice declares it will not take part for absolutely no reason. What on earth makes you think we should not take the voice at its word?

Because, if it was the DO, it would want to appear aloof and benevolent, rather than tip his hand (can you think how Rand would've reacted to the DO revealing (a) that it's not Ishamael, and (b) that its hope is to fool Rand into serving it?). The VOICE wishes Rand to try his hand, to perform on his own. That doesn't change, depending on whether it was the Creator or the DO.

But why did it speak at all, if it was Shai'tan? Rand was going to act on his own regardless of the voice. The voice changed nothing. So why would Shai'tan speak to Rand to say that he wasn't going to do anything when no-one expected Him to do anything anyway? I can understand Shai'tan not wanting to reveal Himself, but He would not have been revealed had He just stayed quiet. Speaking doesn't really benefit the Shadow.

Rand was issuing the Dark one a challenge, saying "The Light burn you, Ba'alzamon! It has to end!" The Dark One was responding, saying he would not take part. That's why Rand said he came too close to provoking a direct confrontation with the Dark One at Maradon; he has done that before, when he attacked the Shadowspawn army in Tarwin's Gap, inside the Blight.

Rand was issuing a challenge to Ba'alzamon, not Shai'tan. No-one was speaking to Shai'tan, no-one expected Him to take part. And no, it's not why Rand said he came too close to a direct confrontation at Maradon. He said that because he came too close to a direct confrontation at Maradon, it had nothing to do with Tarwin's Gap.

 

But why did it speak at all, if it was Shai'tan?

To expound on Terez's answer, Rand was fighting the Shadowspawn, but not their sender. He wished for a way to finish things, and one was comfortably provided (whether or not you believe the VOICE had anything to do with Rand suddenly knowing how to Skim and where to, he wasn't going to do so until he was told that the fight shouldn't be fought where he was). As to why the DO might wish Rand to directly confront Ishamael, I'd refer you to the dude's record; It likes to saw conflict, as a way to both bring people to its cause and to measure its servants.

If Rand wasn't to go elsewhere, then he would just stay where he was. Neither Ishamael nor Shai'tan was coming to him. If Rand wanted this to end, he had to track down Ishamael himself. So why did Shai'tan feel the need to show up and say that He would not take part? Surely He would be telling Ishy that, if He was to tell anyone?

[Sharaman]

In the world of WoT they developed really heavy accents that make it hard to understand each other. That is close enough to new languages without needing books devoted to people learning languages. I know some people love RJ's descriptions but wanting that is as rediculous as complaining that a world that revolves around magic, alternate worlds, and rebirth does not follow every law of physics that we have.

The main problem is the Seanchan. They have plenty of off-screen time to learn the language, and are completely isolated from the continent. It wouldn't require more than maybe three lines scattered throughout the books. Heavy accents are not enough to compensate for thousands of years of isolation, culture merging, and a complete language transition.

 

I think it more unlikely the Aiel would use the common tongue. At least the Seanchan were conquered by an army that spoke the common tongue, so at least it's possible if not very likely that the language of the conquering army spread through the continent replacing (I assume the old tongue) as the common language.

 

The Aiel would have have gone into the waste with the old tongue as their common language. They have had very little contact with the outside world since, why on earth would they have adopted the language of a people they had very little to do with?

 

I think the common tongue was used even before the Breaking. .

[Terez]

Rand was issuing the Dark one a challenge, saying "The Light burn you, Ba'alzamon! It has to end!" The Dark One was responding, saying he would not take part. That's why Rand said he came too close to provoking a direct confrontation with the Dark One at Maradon; he has done that before, when he attacked the Shadowspawn army in Tarwin's Gap, inside the Blight.

From my understanding, Maradon was the only time that was too close; otherwise I think Rand would have added "again" somewhere within the sentence.

 

I don't see why he should have, or how he could have known it was too close unless he had some experience with that sort of thing.

 

I take the Dark One could speak only at Shayol Ghul; they were not there.

 

And the Creator, by RJ's own words, is completely removed from the world and therefore cannot speak at all. Easier to assume we don't know everything about where the Dark One can speak.

[Terez]

Well, that makes things so much clearer. The voice declares it will not take part for absolutely no reason. What on earth makes you think we should not take the voice at its word?

Because, if it was the DO, it would want to appear aloof and benevolent, rather than tip his hand (can you think how Rand would've reacted to the DO revealing (a) that it's not Ishamael, and (b) that its hope is to fool Rand into serving it?). The VOICE wishes Rand to try his hand, to perform on his own. That doesn't change, depending on whether it was the Creator or the DO.

But why did it speak at all, if it was Shai'tan? Rand was going to act on his own regardless of the voice. The voice changed nothing. So why would Shai'tan speak to Rand to say that he wasn't going to do anything when no-one expected Him to do anything anyway? I can understand Shai'tan not wanting to reveal Himself, but He would not have been revealed had He just stayed quiet. Speaking doesn't really benefit the Shadow.

Rand was issuing the Dark one a challenge, saying "The Light burn you, Ba'alzamon! It has to end!" The Dark One was responding, saying he would not take part. That's why Rand said he came too close to provoking a direct confrontation with the Dark One at Maradon; he has done that before, when he attacked the Shadowspawn army in Tarwin's Gap, inside the Blight.

Rand was issuing a challenge to Ba'alzamon, not Shai'tan.

 

Ba'alzamon is another name for Shai'tan, despite the fact that Ishamael also used it.

 

No-one was speaking to Shai'tan, no-one expected Him to take part. And no, it's not why Rand said he came too close to a direct confrontation at Maradon. He said that because he came too close to a direct confrontation at Maradon, it had nothing to do with Tarwin's Gap.

 

You say that as if your word alone settles the issue. It doesn't; it's just your opinion, and it's not very logical at that.

[Vardar]

Rand was issuing the Dark one a challenge, saying "The Light burn you, Ba'alzamon! It has to end!" The Dark One was responding, saying he would not take part. That's why Rand said he came too close to provoking a direct confrontation with the Dark One at Maradon; he has done that before, when he attacked the Shadowspawn army in Tarwin's Gap, inside the Blight.

From my understanding, Maradon was the only time that was too close; otherwise I think Rand would have added "again" somewhere within the sentence.

 

I don't see why he should have, or how he could have known it was too close unless he had some experience with that sort of thing.

 

I take the Dark One could speak only at Shayol Ghul; they were not there.

 

And the Creator, by RJ's own words, is completely removed from the world and therefore cannot speak at all. Easier to assume we don't know everything about where the Dark One can speak.

 

While I totally agree with you, he doesn't say cannot, he says will not right? I mean to assume he cannot do something, is a far cry from he will not.

[Terez]

It's a fine line. RJ said that to do so would be to acknowledge that his Creation is not perfect and needs assistance or guidance, and therefore he does not do it.

[mb]

Rand was issuing the Dark one a challenge, saying "The Light burn you, Ba'alzamon! It has to end!" The Dark One was responding, saying he would not take part. That's why Rand said he came too close to provoking a direct confrontation with the Dark One at Maradon; he has done that before, when he attacked the Shadowspawn army in Tarwin's Gap, inside the Blight.

From my understanding, Maradon was the only time that was too close; otherwise I think Rand would have added "again" somewhere within the sentence.

I don't see why he should have, or how he could have known it was too close unless he had some experience with that sort of thing.

Experience might not be the only source of such knowledge.

Or if it was experience, it might have been from one of those other men.

 

Though if Eye of World (and/or Tarwin's Gap) was too close, so could be most times (if not every time) he faced shadowspawn.

[Terez]

Except that there is a similarity between Tarwin's Gap and Maradon that none of Rand's other experiences with Shadowspawn share: those confrontations were in the Blight.

[Suttree]

It's a fine line. RJ said that to do so would be to acknowledge that his Creation is not perfect and needs assistance or guidance, and therefore he does not do it.

 

I always thought the voice was a prime candidate for an EotWism.

Edited July 18, 2012 by Suttree

[metalisticpain]

In a Path of Daggers, the Maidens beat Rand for going to battle without them (Sammael + Seanchan campaign).

 

Rand has a shirt over his head and min cries out for help when they start to beat him. Any reason why Rand did not embrace the source and lash out? At this point he is sick with the dizzyness, but I would have expected him to try initally as it shouldnt be initially know by him that its maidens attacking him.

[Durinax]

In a Path of Daggers, the Maidens beat Rand for going to battle without them (Sammael + Seanchan campaign).

 

Rand has a shirt over his head and min cries out for help when they start to beat him. Any reason why Rand did not embrace the source and lash out? At this point he is sick with the dizzyness, but I would have expected him to try initally as it shouldnt be initially know by him that its maidens attacking him.

he may have we dont know, it was from mins PoV