two river rebellion

[mb]

What exactly do you mean by this?

 

"During any of the times Fain requested it, Fain would have been unaware of an attack"

We know for a fact that Slayer had orders to kill Fain. If he, like you say, "probably" had plenty of opportunities then what possible reason could he have for not fulfilling his contract?

 

By 'it' I meant 'that Isam send the trollocs'.

 

The order for Slayer to kill Fain was effective during Winter's Heart, but we do not know when the order was given.

I would guess that the order was given sometime after Slayer departed from Two Rivers; likely during the time frame of Crown of Swords through Path of Daggers since those are when Moridin was present.

 

[Ashaman Kovan]

What exactly do you mean by this?

 

"During any of the times Fain requested it, Fain would have been unaware of an attack"

We know for a fact that Slayer had orders to kill Fain. If he, like you say, "probably" had plenty of opportunities then what possible reason could he have for not fulfilling his contract?

 

By 'it' I meant 'that Isam send the trollocs'.

 

The order for Slayer to kill Fain was effective during Winter's Heart, but we do not know when the order was given.

I would guess that the order was given sometime after Slayer departed from Two Rivers; likely during the time frame of Crown of Swords through Path of Daggers since those are when Moridin was present.

 

 

Then why do you think Slayer was in the TR's in the first place? What is it you think Fain did in the time frame you propose that would cause a hit to be put out on him?

 

He was going against the DO's orders just by being in the TR's and trying to bait Rand so he could kill him. Slayer was sent to kill Fain. He couldn't do it. He ended up being wounded by Perrin. He fled. Seeems pretty cut and dry to me.

[Charlz Guybon]

What exactly do you mean by this?

 

"During any of the times Fain requested it, Fain would have been unaware of an attack"

We know for a fact that Slayer had orders to kill Fain. If he, like you say, "probably" had plenty of opportunities then what possible reason could he have for not fulfilling his contract?

 

By 'it' I meant 'that Isam send the trollocs'.

 

The order for Slayer to kill Fain was effective during Winter's Heart, but we do not know when the order was given.

I would guess that the order was given sometime after Slayer departed from Two Rivers; likely during the time frame of Crown of Swords through Path of Daggers since those are when Moridin was present.

 

It's made pretty clear that Slayer's first priority in the Two Rivers is to kill Fain, Perrin showing up was just a bonus.

[Ashaman Kovan]

It's made pretty clear that Slayer's first priority in the Two Rivers is to kill Fain, Perrin showing up was just a bonus.

 

A bonus in sheeps clothing.

[WWWwombat]

Why not? He is not saying Saldaea is subject to Elayne, he is saying the Lord of the TR is subject to the Queen of Andor. Much as the King of England was his own man, but the Duke of Normandy was sworn to the King of France.

 

A situation which William and his descendants found embarrassing/infuriating.

[Charlz Guybon]

Why not? He is not saying Saldaea is subject to Elayne, he is saying the Lord of the TR is subject to the Queen of Andor. Much as the King of England was his own man, but the Duke of Normandy was sworn to the King of France.

 

A situation which William and his descendants found embarrassing/infuriating.

But it worked during William's lifetime and only came to blows later. The same calculations will be at work in this situation as well, peace must be maintained now in order to focus on the greater threat.

 

The end result will likely be the same. France eventually gained sole possession of Normandy, and the same fate will befall the Two Rivers if for no other reason than Elayne will live for hundreds of years and Perrin's bound to have an incompetent descendant at one point.

[mb]

Then why do you think Slayer was in the TR's in the first place? What is it you think Fain did in the time frame you propose that would cause a hit to be put out on him?

He was going against the DO's orders just by being in the TR's and trying to bait Rand so he could kill him. Slayer was sent to kill Fain. He couldn't do it. He ended up being wounded by Perrin. He fled. Seeems pretty cut and dry to me.

Slayer could have been sent to cause chaos in Two Rivers; which he accomplished.

Killing Fain might have been from Slayer deeply disliking Fain.  And that choice being permitted when Slayer & Moridin met.

 

[Ashaman Kovan]

Then why do you think Slayer was in the TR's in the first place? What is it you think Fain did in the time frame you propose that would cause a hit to be put out on him?

He was going against the DO's orders just by being in the TR's and trying to bait Rand so he could kill him. Slayer was sent to kill Fain. He couldn't do it. He ended up being wounded by Perrin. He fled. Seeems pretty cut and dry to me.

Slayer could have been sent to cause chaos in Two Rivers; which he accomplished.

Killing Fain might have been from Slayer deeply disliking Fain.  And that choice being permitted when Slayer & Moridin met.

 

 

Why would he be sent to the Two Rivers to cause chaos? None of the Forsaken cared about it. Not to mention that there are many, many places I and I'm sure you could think of that would have accomplished that goal much better. Fain was there for personal reasons, to draw Rand there so he could kill him. Which the DO didn't want. Therefore Slayer was sent to kill Fain for going against the Shadow. It's cut and dry.

Your arguments are full of could have beens and possiblies. Which there are no need for since we already know why he was there.

[mb]

Slayer could have been sent to cause chaos in Two Rivers; which he accomplished.

Killing Fain might have been from Slayer deeply disliking Fain.  And that choice being permitted when Slayer & Moridin met.

Why would he be sent to the Two Rivers to cause chaos? None of the Forsaken cared about it. Not to mention that there are many, many places I and I'm sure you could think of that would have accomplished that goal much better. Fain was there for personal reasons, to draw Rand there so he could kill him. Which the DO didn't want. Therefore Slayer was sent to kill Fain for going against the Shadow. It's cut and dry.

Your arguments are full of could have beens and possiblies. Which there are no need for since we already know why he was there.

Actually, we cannot prove the reason; so we do not know. 'could have been' & possibilities are what we can say right now.

Killing the wolves or causing the queen to dislike Two Rivers might be other reasons.

 

Fain wanting to kill Rand, that seems the wrong reason to want Fain dead since the order was at least several books after the situation.  Becoming merged with Mordeth (who fought against the Shadow) seems a more likely reason to want Fain dead.

 

[Aiemond]

Then why do you think Slayer was in the TR's in the first place? What is it you think Fain did in the time frame you propose that would cause a hit to be put out on him?

He was going against the DO's orders just by being in the TR's and trying to bait Rand so he could kill him. Slayer was sent to kill Fain. He couldn't do it. He ended up being wounded by Perrin. He fled. Seeems pretty cut and dry to me.

Slayer could have been sent to cause chaos in Two Rivers; which he accomplished.

Killing Fain might have been from Slayer deeply disliking Fain.  And that choice being permitted when Slayer & Moridin met.

 

 

Slayer was sent to kill Fain, that is what he says. In TSR, chapter 42 he states his reason to Perrin (of course he could be lying, but I doubt it here)

 

"It was just a few hundred to begin, Goldeneyes. Just enough to keep those fool whitecloaks off balance and see that the renegade died." Slayer's voice became angry. "The Shadow consume me if that man does not have more luck than the White Tower."

 

Now we know that Fain wanted to hurt Rand's homeland and that it was him that moved the whitecloak's to the TR to do this (through Niall). This is why any trollocs came in the first place, to keep them occupied while he assassinated Fain.

 

Slayer wanted to cause chaos there after the waygate was blocked (mad at Perrin), but before this, his main goal was to kill Fain.

[Mr Ares]

Why not? He is not saying Saldaea is subject to Elayne, he is saying the Lord of the TR is subject to the Queen of Andor. Much as the King of England was his own man, but the Duke of Normandy was sworn to the King of France.

A situation which William and his descendants found embarrassing/infuriating.

England is conspicuous by its absence from your list. And as Perrin is only co-ruler, any possible embarassment to Saldaea is reduced.