I want my theory for the end of the book out there

[FarShainMael]

This theory has the same logical problem as the DO's putative attempt to break the wheel of time. Since the wheel is infinite, if in essentially infinite tries something has never happened, the chances of it happening must be infinitesimal. Why is this time different (of course there is a meta answer to this).

 

(As an aside, it's for this reason I've always seen the DO's plight as sysyphean, RJ's references to manichaeism notwithstanding.)

 

(As another aside, given that we know RJ wrote or outlined the ending contemporaneously with The Eye of the World, I think the best clues to the final resolution of the series lie in elements from book 1 seemingly cast aside, rather than in elements of the final books.)

 

Where is it said or implied that the Wheel is infinite? It was created, and there are things outside of it, so it can't be infinite.

 

"There are neither beginnings nor endings to the turning of the Wheel of Time," for starters.

 

A circle has no beginning or ending, but is still finite.

[Bastor]

Might as well throw my idea out there - the wheel gets broken, the light side still wins though. All of the visions are now broken and everyone is free of the Wheels trap (I know Ishmael is one crazy reborn mofo but he is correct that they are all trapped and doomed inside the wheel forever and ever and ever to play out the same roles. Like a huge loop in time everything has been running and repeating forever and we need some way to brake the loop)

 

Wrecking the Creator into the Dark One seems like a good way to brake; the loop ;)