You mean during WW1 and 2 where we had concentration camps for Japanese US Citizens? That has nothing to do with criminalizing languages that weren't English and everything to do with us being at war with them. A really damn big war.
You find me something like this that A) isnt from over 100 years ago and B) isn't from the same time period where we jailed US citizens based on nationality, still didn't allow black people or women to vote and weren't at War with half the world, then you will have a point.
As is? That's an out of date example based on a world changing event. Other countries with official languages didn't do that, so why does America with no official language doing that prove that having an official language will cause it to happen? Simply, it doesn't.
The precedent argument is ridiculous. You can't set precedent for criminalizing something by making one thing required. They are two independent things and by your own examples, we don't need to have an official language to criminalize other languages. Your own examples showed them to be independent of each other.
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